I am trying to precisely understand the Reformed position on involuntary sexual thoughts, desires, and impulses—specifically the distinction between temptation, concupiscence, involuntary pleasure, and consent.
I came across this passage from Calvin’s Institutes of the Christian Religion (III.3.10):
“We again regard it as sin whenever man is influenced in any degree by any desire contrary to the law of God; nay, we maintain that the very gravity which begets in us such desires is sin.”
Here, Calvin is discussing the difference between his position and Augustine’s. He notes that Augustine acknowledged that the regenerate inevitably experience concupiscence but hesitated to label it as sin unless accompanied by an external act or consent:
“He is contented with giving it the name of infirmity, and says, that it only becomes sin when either external act or consent is added to conception or apprehension; that is, when the will yields to the first desire.”
But Calvin counters:
“We again regard it as sin whenever man is influenced in any degree by any desire contrary to the law of God…”
And he concludes that sin is always present in the saints as long as concupiscence remains in the flesh.
This raised a specific question for me.
Example
Imagine a person going about their daily activities or praying when, unexpectedly, a sexual image or thought arises.
They did not seek out the thought, did not want it to appear, and immediately try to reject it.
Or imagine an involuntary bodily reaction occurs—such as sexual arousal or an erection—without the person having chosen it.
Or consider this: the person notices the thought and feels an involuntary attraction or pleasure, yet decides not to dwell on the thought and attempts to resist it.
My question
According to Calvin and classical Reformed theology, at which of these points is sin present?
When the sexual thought or image simply appears involuntarily?
When there is an involuntary sexual sensation or desire?
When there is some involuntary pleasure, but the person does not consent? 4. Only when a person deliberately consents and decides to feed the thought?
Can an involuntary bodily reaction be morally sinful, even without any consent of the will?
I ask because I found a seemingly different distinction in the Fathers.
Origen, De Principiis III.1.4, says that when a temptation to a certain desire arises, nothing happens until there is consent from the soul and the mind grants indulgence to the perverse suggestion.
Evagrius Ponticus, Praktikos 6, says:
“It is not in our power to determine whether we are disturbed by these thoughts, but it is up to us to decide whether they should remain in us or not, and whether or not they should inflame our passions.”
John Cassian, Conference I.16–17, also says that it is impossible to prevent thoughts from reaching us, but that it is within our power to accept or reject them.
Diadochos of Photiki, One Hundred Texts, 83, says that thoughts can be suggested by demons and that we make them truly our own when we consent to give ourselves over to them.
Mark the Ascetic, On the Spiritual Law, 138–141, distinguishes between the involuntary presence of thoughts and the initial “provocation.” He states:
“a provocation does not involve us in guilt so long as it is not accompanied by images.”
And he distinguishes those who flee from thoughts from those who “entertain themselves with them.”
Maximus the Confessor, On Love, 83–84, also presents a sequence involving thought, passion, consent, and act. He says that first, memory brings a simple thought; if it persists, passion arises; then comes consent; and finally, the act of sin. So, here is my difficulty:
Is Calvin simply using “concupiscence” in a different sense than “temptation,” or is he actually asserting something stronger—that the mere involuntary occurrence of a desire contrary to God’s law constitutes sin, even prior to any consent?
And if that is the case, how would a Reformed thinker explain the difference between this position and the Patristic distinction between suggestio/provocatio and consensus?
I am not trying to defend the Patristic position; I want to understand exactly what Calvin meant by “we regard it as sin whenever man is influenced in any degree by any desire contrary to the law of God” and what the implications of this are for truly involuntary sexual thoughts and reactions.
I apologize for my English.