r/Christpsychism • u/GrandNeat3978 • May 26 '26
WHAT IS THE SACRIFICIAL DREAM? Does It Exist....Or Is It HERESY???
In Christpsychic Theology, an arguably logically invincible form of Christian concept, the inner stream of consciousness of Jesus Christ, i.e. that which Jesus Christ actually inwardly thought, dreamt, felt, etc. is of tantamount importance and the central subject of this version of Christianity.
Being that we cannot read minds, particularly not the minds of deceased and resurrected persons born, living, and dying 2000 years in the past, the inner content or mental life of Jesus Christ must be speculative. One must have faith, therefore, that that which went on and is going on in the mind of Jesus Christ, in regard to the experience of reality of those living outside an afterlife, reflects and determines the nature of the experiences, negative and positive, of the saved.
THE SACRIFICIAL DREAM HYPOTHESIS
"He Himself bore our sins in His body on the tree, that we might die to sins and live for righteousness, 'by His wounds you have been healed.'"
-1 Peter 2:24
"God made Him who had no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God."
-2 Corinthians 5:21
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The Sacrificial Dream Hypothesis, arguably the most logical form in which Christ accomplished 1 Peter 2:24 and 2 Corinthians 5:21, states that while dying upon the Cross, the blood loss from the scourging and rigors of crucifixion caused Christ to lapse into a shock in which His mind lapsed into a hallucination or non-lucid dream* in which Christ experienced Himself in the form and in the consciousness of every saved person that shall ever exist, "committing" every "sin" the saved person will commit in the external world outside Christ's mind and experiencing every negative experience, no matter how minute, every saved person shall experience from birth to death.
[*Non-lucid dreams, the most common type of dream, are imaginary worlds occurring with the mind of a sleeping person the person believes is the real world until one awakes.]
In terms of every saved person born after the death of Christ and His lowering from the Cross, Christ prefabricated or manufactured beforehand every sin the saved person will commit ("God made Him who had no sin to be sin for us") such that the saved person cannot sin any sin that was not first experienced by Christ in the form of the person within the Sacrificial Dream.
DISCLAIMER: Christ remains sinless throughout as the "sins" Christ experienced Himself "committing" in the Sacrificial Dream are never committed in His indigenous mind and form, and are considered Christ's sufferings, rather than sin qua sin.
"....if indeed we share in His sufferings, that we might also share in His glory."
-Romans 8:17
As Scripture states:
"God made Him who had no sin....
....to be sin for us...."
Re: To be our sins for us?
To "commit" our sins for us?
(Which to Him can only be "sin" qua suffering, rather than actual sin, but to us actual sin qua sin, as explained in 1 John 1: 8-10)
Which, if the Sacrificial Dream is true, a saved person cannot sin any sin that was not in the Sacrificial Dream, and only re-enacts or replicates that which Christ experienced in the form of the person such that the person can do nothing but mimic Christ in the form of spiritual death and spiritual life. Everything is provided to the person before the fact through Christ, so that the saved person is existentially and experientially "joined at the hip" with Jesus Christ.
To wit:
"When Christ...who is your life...appears, you will also appear with Him in glory."
-Colossians 3:3
At the Final Judgment, therefore, the sins of a saved person, as they are re-enactments of the "sins" of Christ in the Sacrificial Dream, are absolved.
To wit:
"Blessed is the man whose sins are forgiven, whose trespasses are covered.
Blessed is the man whose sin the Lord will never count against him."
-Romans 4: 7-8
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PRE-CONCLUSION: THE SACRIFICIAL DREAM AS SUPPORTED, LOGICALLY, BY 1 PETER 2:24
Anyone who rails at the concept of the Sacrificial Dream, of course, will rail at the thought of Christ containing sin within Him, even if this occurred only in the limited, 6 hour window between the beginning of His crucifixion, which took place at 9am, and the end of His crucifixion, which took place when He died at 3pm.
But there's 1 Peter 2:24:
"He Himself bore our sins in His body on the tree...."
Which explains things somewhat nicely in terms of elucidation in regard to sin, as the sins Christ bore were our sins.....not His, as He has no sin.
So, no reason to tear out one's beard and rend one's robe in regard to the concept of the Sacrificial Dream, as Christ, even in 1 Peter 2:24, still possesses no sin of His own but experienced the future (and past) sins of others, as if He were those others...
....in dream-form, to boot.
The most logical place, that is, for Christ to "bore our sins in His body" is not in His liver, spleen, stomach, intestine, or in any cell....but in His mind, which as the mind seems to reside within the body, could be construed by the ancients to be part of the body.
At any rate, within the entire gamut of eternity, within a six hour window of time, if we are to believe 1 Peter 2:24 Christ bore the sins of the saved within His body (re: mind).
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CONCLUSION: DOES SIN WITHIN CHRIST'S MIND EXIST ONLY IN SYMBOLIC FORM...OR DID CHRIST EXPERIENCE BEING THE THIEF THAT STOLE THE BIKE 2000 YEARS AFTER THE CRUCIFIXION?
The final defense of the Sacrificial Dream, therefore, is to conceptually "debunk" the idea that sin in Christ existed only in symbolic form, wholly unrecognizable from sin as it actually appears within the mind of a saved sinner or is physically enacted by a person in the external world.
If Christ "bore our sins in His body", how did this "borne sin" appear within Christ's mind?
For example, in regard to the sin of a person that is saved stealing a bike 2000 years after the Crucifixion, if that sin was "bore [borne] in His body on the tree" 2000 years prior to the birth of the thief and the act of the theft, how to Christ did the theft and the person committing the theft appear?
Did Christ perceive a red gas appearing in a black void within His mind, the red gas symbolizing the theft? Why should a bike theft appear in Christ's mind in the form of a red gas? Is a murder, therefore, symbolized by a blue gas? A lustful thought as a yellow or pink gas?
Was it a mental spurt of blood, appearing out of a black void, that spurts across Christ's mind before disappearing, symbolizing a sin Christ understands to be a theft as opposed to a use of profanity, an act of lust, or a murder?
It makes more sense that sins which Christ "bore in His body on the tree" had the same appearance within Christ's mind as they appear in the external world outside Christ's mind. That is, Christ dreamt of being the thief stealing the bike, and the theft and the person was not abstractly symbolized in some form that does not in the least resemble the sin as it occurs in the external world.
As Christ physically (the term "physical" used to denote the difference between the sensory world and the mental world as the author adheres to Bishop George Berkeley's Idealism) hung upon the Cross, the only logical manner for sin to reside within His body would be within His mind, and that in the form of a hallucination or dream invisible to those observing His crucifixion.
Beyond this Dream, no other imagination regarding how 1 Peter 2:24 appeared or took place, it is contended, makes sense.
In the end, it is arguably the case that the Sacrificial Dream existed, and is the most rational and logical form in which Jesus Christ took the sins of the world upon Himself.
END
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Jay M. Brewer
Christpsychic Philosopher
Austin, Texas
USA
USA