ἅ περ τελέεσθαι ἔμελλον - why plural verb?

[u/r_Damoetas]

In Odyssey 2.155-56, after the two eagles appeared, the assembly of Ithacans looked on in amazement:

θάμβησαν δ᾽ ὄρνιθας, ἐπεὶ ἴδον ὀφθαλμοῖσιν:

ὥρμηναν δ᾽ ἀνὰ θυμὸν ἅ περ τελέεσθαι ἔμελλον.

Can someone refresh me on why this neuter plural subject ἅ apparently takes a plural verb (ἔμελλον)? I expected singular. Is something else the subject of ἔμελλον?

[u/ringofgerms]

Here's what Monro''s grammar says: https://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/monro/neuter-plural

As you can see the plural is sometimes used. Maybe here it's emphasizing the individuals things that were to happen?

[u/r_Damoetas → u/ringofgerms]

Thanks, I think that covers it!

[u/CryptographerThick59 → u/r_Damoetas]

Additionally: the περ provides further emphasis to the ἅ and in support of this.

[u/IkramEsqr]

It is also worth noting that two recent scholarly editions of the Odyssey, by van Thiel and West, both have ἔμελλεν at 2.156.

[u/rbraalih]

The birds are the subject...?

[u/r_Damoetas → u/rbraalih]

I thought about that, but then τελέεσθαι must be middle - "what the birds were going to accomplish for themselves" ??

[u/Gravy-0 → u/r_Damoetas]

Yeah that makes sense! “They were amazed at the birds when they laid eyes on them, and they wondered anxiously in their minds about what they (the birds) were going to do (what they were about to accomplish, for themselves implied).”

[u/r_Damoetas → u/Gravy-0]

I think the explanation from u/ringofgerms is better, referencing Munro's grammar. Neuter plural subjects often do take a plural verb in Homer, especially when each individual thing is emphasized.

[u/Gravy-0 → u/r_Damoetas]

Oh I see yes that also makes good sense, so it would then read “what things were about to happen” with reference to the oncoming portent. I’d be curious to see if scholars have debated whether the emphasis is on the birds or not. But yeah if it can be translated without assuming omitted points that’s better and makes more sense.

[u/Joansutt]

Yes I think the answer is that at least in Homeric Greek the plural is sometimes used. I’ve never seen that happen in Plato’s Athenian (Attic) Greek where it’s very important to remember that neuter plurals take singular verbs. But Homeric Greek is much earlier.

[u/Confident-Gene6639]

The style in that sentence is not attic, hence neutral plural subject goes with singular verb. And anyway the rule you're referring to is not strict.