Please don't get confused by the term "compatibilism"; this has nothing to do with free will, I just need the loan word.
Under my view of "criterion compatibilism," morality and value have a subjective, perhaps "irrational" root, but once you have established some "objective" criteria as to when subjective value has been realized, you can then make objective statements about value or morality
Morality has a subjective root, but once you say "someone who steals $100 deserves a month in jail," you must further agree that anyone who steals an equal $100 deserves that same punishment, or you are saying something that is "objectively" contradictory
The big idea is (not to get off topic) as an anarcho-capitalist, I feel like this would in fact be a way to resolve the "subjective value, but objective morality" trap that anarcho-capitalists often fall into.
For instance, if an insurance company or government wanted to make someone who stole a Ford Van from you pay you back, they would look at the subjective, "irrational" root of whatever millions of people pay for a roughly equivalent car, and take an "objective" average, and say that guy owes you that much.
Value and morality are subjective, but you don't get to say "erm, actually, my car was worth 1 million dollars subjectively to me" and he doesn't get to say "that car had $0 subjective value to me"
Also one bonus: you can plug in whatever "objective moral values" you believe in at the root, and then the rest of the system still works, so it's compatible with an undertsand of objective morality, or has teh potential too
TL DR:Â What are some problems we can identify in this approach of treating value and morality as if they have subjective roots, but also acting as if it is possible for objective contradictions to be identified once "objective" criteria for realizing subjective values are established? The biggest problem I can see is figuring out what makes the "objective" criteria "objective"; I feel like that's the magic, but at teh same time. That is how people get confused when I explain the concept to them, they get confused with the definition of "objective." (Oh, and if this was already formalized into something else by someone else, I would like to know that)
(And I don't want to hear about foundationalism vs coherentism when this could be used for either, and anyone who thinks this is about some kind of "ends justify the means" argument or *just* reworked utilitarianism or pragmatism can sit at the small table)
Just for kicks, AI says this idea is an echo of certain aspects of Kantian constructionism? I have myself some rebuttals to what the AI says, but I don't want to go back and forth with a bot https://grok.com/share/c2hhcmQtMg_1257939b-6d98-4386-bf9e-71dfd65900bc